O'Brien (1995, 59) concludes by attributing the "distinctly curious results" I reached to the combined confusion of assuming purchasing power parity and instantaneous adjustment to long-run equilibrium. However, the only confusions that I can detect are semantic: between the law of one price for similar tradable commodities and purchasing power parity and between two distinct meanings of the term price level. Moreover, the law of one price, as a staple of international trade theory, is an assumption that O'Brien cannot avoid in his analysis, even though he argues as if it were a condition of long-run equilibrium. Referring to my citation of Samuelson's (1980) analysis of balance-of-payments adjustment under the assumption that "prices for all goods are perfectly arbitraged across all markets" (Glasner 1989b, 209), O'Brien observes that this "is, of course, something which would never occur during an adjustment period, if it ever occurred at all" (1995, 59). Presumably, O'Brien is referring to the adjustment period during which balance-of-payments equilibrium is restored. But he neglects to explain how the arbitrage of price differences between internationally traded commodities is linked to the balance of 〖payments.〗^8