Without delving into details of discrepancies which may exist between the “Perpetual Peace” essay and Kant’s more difficult and fuller discussion in The Metaphysical Elements of Justice, for my purposes the most important question is this: does Kant mean to derive or deduce cosmopolitan right from the fact of the spherically of the earth’s surface? What is the status of this fact in Kant’s moral argument? If indeed we were to assume that Kant used the spherically of the earth as a justificatory premise, wouldn’t we then have to conclude that he had committed the naturalistic fallacy? Just because all castles everywhere are built on sand, it still does not follow that mine should be so built as well. Likewise, just because I must, somewhere and at some point, come into contact with other human beings and cannot flee them forever, this does not imply that upon such contact I must treat them with the respect and dignity to be accorded every human being.