But I'm pretty sure this won't work. Just because lg(2^f(n)) = O(lg(2^g(n))) does not necessarily mean that 2^f(n) = O(2^g(n))...that's backwards from the previous theorem (which said "implies", not "if and only if").
Do I need to try this proof another way, or can I actually go off of what I have (at least as a starter)?
**Speaking of other ways, maybe I could just argue about how raising 2 to some g(n) that is "above" an f(n) will still keep it higher? It almost feels like a common sense argument, but maybe I'm missing something important..
**Oh, oops! I forgot to add that f(n) and g(n) are asymptotically positive. By our textbook definition, this means that they are "positive for all sufficiently large n."